That… no… but…
The argument that “you can’t split infinitives”, as I’ve heard it, is because you can’t split infinitives in Latin (since the “to” is a part of the verb itself). This might be fallacious (a straw man) according to Wikipedia, but I’m fine with that. People split infinitives and I’ve never seen a strong argument as to why that’s wrong.
Homie? Isn’t it just that he lied cause he ain’t no narc?