I see no reason to assume the proportions would somehow be different. Or am I supposed to assume that politically motivated people are more likely to vote in Eurovision? I would argue it’s been taken into consideration by the assumption that 100% of that 12% would vote. And just to reiterate, for Israel to get maximum points 100% of the 12% had to vote at least twice or more than 24% (and that’s the low end of what Israel would have to get to be first) of all the votes had to go to Israel.
And finally, Eurovision could’ve easily silenced all skeptics by releasing the full breakdown of votes. I’ll leave it up to you to decide why they didn’t release the full breakdown (and no, it’s not because it’s a secret because Italy reveals their voting percentages).
I see no reason to assume the proportions would somehow be different. Or am I supposed to assume that politically motivated people are more likely to vote in Eurovision?
If that’s what you want to assume, ok. I think we’re past the point of useful discussion here, as neither of us can back up our assumptions.
I see no reason to assume the proportions would somehow be different. Or am I supposed to assume that politically motivated people are more likely to vote in Eurovision? I would argue it’s been taken into consideration by the assumption that 100% of that 12% would vote. And just to reiterate, for Israel to get maximum points 100% of the 12% had to vote at least twice or more than 24% (and that’s the low end of what Israel would have to get to be first) of all the votes had to go to Israel.
And finally, Eurovision could’ve easily silenced all skeptics by releasing the full breakdown of votes. I’ll leave it up to you to decide why they didn’t release the full breakdown (and no, it’s not because it’s a secret because Italy reveals their voting percentages).
If that’s what you want to assume, ok. I think we’re past the point of useful discussion here, as neither of us can back up our assumptions.